Consider the sentence:
External Minister said that the matter has been taken up with Saudi authorities.
Source: The Times of India
Since it's a reported speech form, shouldn't it be 'had been' instead of 'has been'?
In reported speech, if the main verb is in the past tense then the verb in the subordinate clause will also be in corresponding past tense.
John said, "I have finished my work". (Direct speech)
John said that he had finished his work. (Indirect speech)
This is something which every grammar books suggest but why do I often come across the sentences which overlook these tense modification as in the citation given above ?
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