Friday, May 29, 2015

grammaticality - Why is 'neither' (without 'nor') singular?


I ask about 'neither' as a determiner. I want to dredge below the last 5 paras under 'Tip 2' , which don't explain. Neither does p 90, A Student's Introduction to English Grammar (2005).



Consider: 2. Neither of the parties ?IS? concerned.
= 3. Both two or more parties are NOT concerned
Does the plurality of the verb in 3, prove that 'neither' should be plural? Why or why not?


I edited the nouns in the original below to simplify.



You need to be careful, because there are two separate situations.
[I omit the second situation here, which I ask NOT about.]


(1) "Neither" withOUT "nor", as in "Neither of the ... parties is concerned with Egypt."


If it is "neither" only, then it is singular and takes a singular verb even though the plural verb might sound better to us.






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