Tuesday, April 17, 2018

Having+past participle as a gerund


I've read that 'having+past participle' is used in the perfect participle. Now I'm confused to have found the following sentences written in a grammar book(which isn't available in internet) and in this website http://www.myenglishteacher.net/gerunds.html as gerunds. Which calls it as perfect gerund. The sentences are:



  1. I heard of his having won a prize.

  2. The mirror showed no prints of having been touched.

  3. She was accused of having stolen my bag.



My questions:



  1. How are these sentences with 'having+p.p' uses of the gerund?

  2. Could you please tell me how to use 'having+p.p' as gerunds in sentences with examples?




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